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This is what I've been able to do: Base case: $n = 1$ $L.H.S: 1^3 = 1$ $R.H.S: (1)^2 = 1$ Therefore it's true for $n = 1$. I.H.: Assume that, for some $k \in \Bbb N$, $1^3 + 2^3 + ... + k^3 = (1 + 2 +...+ k)...
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I got this formula from a data structure book in the bubble sort algorithm. I know that we are (n-1) * (n times), but why the division by 2? Can anyone please explain this to me or give the detailed proof for it.
stackoverflow.comI think the formula is $n^2$. Define $p(n): 1 + 3 + 5 + \ldots +(2n − 1) = n^2$ Then $p(n + 1): 1 + 3 + 5 + \ldots +(2n − 1) + 2n = (n + 1)^2$ So $p(n + 1): n^2 + 2n = (n + 1)...
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